Tài liệu ôn tập cuối kì I môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 (Global Success) - Năm học 2023-2024
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- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 UNIT 1 – FAMILY LIFE I. PHONETICS @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 1. A. lifting B. routine C. split D. divide 2. A. clothes B. fold C. groceries D. iron 3. A. chore B. chemist C. children D. choice 4. A. gratitude B. character C. activate D. agreement 5. A. breadwinner B. heavy C. season D. ready @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 6. A. laundry B. rubbish C. household D. device 7. A. strengthen B. achieve C. laundry D. housework 8. A. contribute B. generous C. homemaker D. meaningful 9. A. confident B. important C. together D. exciting 10. A. gratitude B. breadwinner C. experience D. benefit II. VOCABULARY: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. When all members of the family share housework, the family ______ will become stronger. A. joys B. happiness C. life D. bonds 12. She does two jobs at the same time as she is the main ______ of the family A. breadwinner B. homemaker C. housewife D. breadmaker 13. Sharing house also helps young people learn to ______ responsibility. A. make B. get C. do D. take 14. Doing housework brings great ______ to children as it helps them develop necessary life skills. A. benefits B. hard work C. results D. practices 15. A _______ is a person who manages a home and raises children instead of earning money. A. breadwinner B. homemaker C. farmer D. husband 16. Kindness and responsibility are two ______ that many parents want to teach to their children. A. family values B. customs C. cultures D. ideas 17. My mother often ______ in the early morning because she wants to choose the freshest and healthiest ingredients for the meals. A. does the cooking B. shops for groceries C. do the grocery shopping D. cooks 18. My husband and I both go out to work so we _______ the household chores equally. A. pay B. share C. make D. take 19. In my family, we work together on household chores. We share the housework ________ A. equality B. equal C. equally D. unequally 20. Mr. Hoang found it difficult to be in charge of the household __________. A. financial B. financially C. finances D. financier Page | 1 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 III. GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 21. John ________ a lecture on social media at university every Wednesday. A. gave B. have given C. gives D. is giving 22. I ride a bike to school every day but today I ____ to school by bus because it was stolen yesterday. A. went B. going C. go D. am going 23. 10. All staff in this restaurant ____ an urgent meeting right now. A. are attending B. is attending C. attends D. attend 24. My mom ____ to the supermarket every Sunday for shopping. A. goes B. go C. is going D. are going 25. Look! Minh ____ on stage. She looks so beautiful. A. sings B. are singing C. is singing D. sang 26. Bich sometimes ____ chicken noodle soup for breakfast. A. are having B. is having C. have D. has 27. Hoa usually ____ charge of doing the washing-up in her family. A. takes B. is taking C. take D. will take 28. Water ____ at 100 degrees Celsius. A. boils B. boiled C. is boiling D. will boil 29. Hoang and Phong ____ football as they’re having class now. A. don’t play B. are playing C. doesn’t play D. aren’t playing 30. I’m busy at the moment, ____ on the computer A. I work B. I’m worked C. I’m working D. I worked IV. WRITING @ Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence: 31. My alarm rings at 6 o’clock every morning. Therefore, I always went to school on time. A B C D 32. What are you search for, Lan? You look so nervous. A B C D 33. Quiet! My baby sleeps. Don’t wake her up. A B C D 34. Both parents have equal responsible to nurture and take care of children. A B C D 35. Amada looks very unhappily with the dress, and she’s going to cry. A B C D 36. Mr. Vy leaves the house at a quarter past five and arrive in the field at exactly 5.30. A B C D 37. Ngoc is always very busy. She is practises violin regularly. A B C D 38. As a result of the Women’s Movement, women now holds positions that were once restricted to men A B C D 39. I’m sorry but you can’t see the principal now because he meets some parents. A B C D 40. Look! that man tries to open the door of your car. A B C D Page | 2 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 V. READING @ Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank. "Today’s (1) for measurable childhood success-from the Common Core to college placement-have chased (2) chores from the to-do lists of many young people. In a survey of 1,001 U.S. adults released last fall by Braun Research, 82% reported having regular chores growing up, but only 28% said that they require their own children to do them. With students (3) pressure to learn Mandarin, run the chess club or get a varsity letter, chores have fallen victim to the imperatives of resume-building—though it is hardly clear that such activities are a better use of their time. “Parents today want their kids spending time on things that can bring (4) success, but ironically, we’ve stopped doing one thing that’s actually been a proven predictor of success-and that’s household chores,” says Richard Rende, a developmental psychologist in Paradise Valley, Ariz., and co-author of the forthcoming book “Raising Can-Do Kids.” Decades of studies (5) the benefits of chores-academically, emotionally and even professionally." 1.A. demand B. demands C. interest D. interests 2. A. household B. social C. breadwinner D. society 3. A. on B. for C. of D. under 4. A. him B. it C. them D. they 5. A. show B. showing C. shows D. is showing @ Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers BUILDING POSITIVE FAMILY RELATIONSHIPS The ordinary, everyday things that families do together can help build strong relationships with teenagers. Regular family meals are a great chance for everyone to chat about their day, or about interesting things that are going on or coming up. If parents encourage everyone to have a say, no one will feel they’re being put on the spot to talk. Also, many families find that meals are more enjoyable when the TV isn’t turned on! We should all take turns choosing outdoor activities for our families. A relaxing holiday or weekend away together as a family can also build togetherness. One-on-one time with the child gives the parents the chance to stay connected and enjoy each other’s company. It can also be a chance to share thoughts and feelings. Parents should celebrate the child’s accomplishments, share his disappointments, and show interest in his hobbies. Sometimes it’s just a matter of showing up to watch the child play sport or music, or giving him a lift to extracurricular activities. Family traditions, routines and rituals can help parents and their children set aside regular dates and special times. For example, we might have a movie night together, a favourite meal or cooking session on a particular night, a family games afternoon or an evening walk together. Agreed household responsibilities give kids of all ages the sense that they’re making an important contribution to family life. These could be things like chores, shopping or helping older or younger members of the family. 1. Regular family meals are a great chance for everyone . A. to have an opportunity share their daily activities B. to talk about TV programmes during the meal C. to have the spot to talk about D. to talk about interesting things that are coming soon 2. The following things are true about outdoor activities for our families EXCEPT A. all family members try to find out suitable activities B. they should be held on holidays or at weekends C. they offer a chance to share secret thoughts and feelings D. they offer the pleasant feeling of being united Page | 3 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 3. Parents can show their attention to their child by all these things EXCEPT . A. watching the child play sport or music B. giving him a lift to extracurricular activities C. having a movie night together D. setting aside regular dates to do housework 4. Children who share household chores with their parents will . A. enjoy each other’s company B. make the family life better C. be given a chance to do extracurricular activities D. have a family games afternoon or an evening walk together 5. The main idea of the passage is . A. to give advice on staying connected and enjoying each other’s company B. how to share household chores between family members C. to offer pieces of advice to improve family relationships D. the important role of family traditions, routines and rituals Page | 4 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 UNIT 2 – HUMANS AND THE ENVIRONMENT I. PHONETICS @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 1. A. comment B. benefit C. emission D. chemical 2. A. adopt B. protect C. carbon D. produce 3. A. financial B. appliance C. environment D. electricity 4. A. chores B. chemical C. charity D. chair 5. A. carbon B. awareness C. classroom D. started @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 6. A. reduce B. adopt C. issue D. protect 7. A. awareness B. difference C. instrument D. character 8. A. organic B. dangerous C. chemical D. natural 9. A. environment B. generation C. traditional D. identify 10. A. pollute B. reduce C. improve D. happen II. VOCABULARY: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Children should be taught to raise the _______ of using paper bags instead of plastic bags. A. energy B. awareness C. waste D. recycling 12. We buy _______ food at the farmers' market. It costs a little bit more, but we think it's better for our health. A. organic B. non-organic C. healthy D. wealthy 13. Environmentalists are furious with the American Government for delaying measures which will reduce greenhouse gas _______. A. exhaust fumes B. smokes C. wastes D. emissions 14. Remember to turn off your ___________ when they are not used. A. household choresB. household appliances C. household finance D. invitations 15. Small changes in your daily habits can help reduce the ___________ you produce. A. carbon footprint B. footsteps C. issues D. trouble 16. You should cut down ________ electricity usage to reduce your carbon footprint. A. in B. on C. to D. for 17. Simple actions like putting rubbish in the bin can help to_______ the environment. A. set up B. save C. protect D. encourage 18. More people _________ a green lifestyle because it is good for the environment. A. adopt B. conclude C. compose D. create 19. One of the most important _____________of energy is the sun. A. resources B. sources C. means D. kinds 20. The students are practising their presentation on _______ protection. A. environment B. environmental C. environmentalist D. environmentally Page | 5 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 III. GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 21. I feel terrible. I think I________ sick. A. am going to be B. am being C. was D. will be 22. The man can’t see the hole in front of him, he __________ into it. A. will fall B. is going to fall C. is falling D. fell 23. They have just bought some paint. They ________ their house this afternoon. A. are going to paint B. will paint C. paint D. be going to paint 24. It’s very hot. ____ the window. please? A. Are you opening B. Are you going to open C. Will you open D. Won’t you open 25. Who ____ the next World Cup? A. is going to win B. is wining C. will win D. win 26. He ____ to the theatre tonight. He has got a free ticket. A. goes B. is going C. went D. will go 27. This house is going ______ by my mother A. sold B. to be sold C. to sold D. to sell 28. Since the computer _______, it has made considerable changes to our daily life. A. has invented B. is invented C. was invented D. invented 29. The injured ____ to the hospital in an ambulance. A. have taken B. was taking C. were taken D. were taking 30. It ____ that the painting is a fake. A. believed B. is believed C. is believing D. was believing IV. WRITING @ Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence: 31. From the graphs, we can see that the number of employees who employed by this firm increases A B C D each year 32. Look at the dark clouds. I’m sure it will rain soon. A B C D 33. People should avoid using products which make from plastic. A B C D 34. A documentary about the wildlife is going to show on TV tonight. A B C D 35. People say that this house has been built by an old man 12 years ago A B C D @ Choose the sentence which has the similar in meaning to the original one: 36. Somebody is using the computer at the moment. A. The computer is being used at the moment. B. The computer at the moment is being used. C. The computer is being used by some body at the moment. D. The computer is used at the moment. Page | 6 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 37. The doctor told him not to talk during the meditation. A. He has been told not to talk during the meditation by the doctor. B. He was told not to talk during the meditation by the doctor. C. He was being told not to talk during the meditation. D. He is told by the doctor not to talk during the meditation. 38. The man is going to tell his story. A. His story is going to be told by the man. B. He is going to be told his story by the man. C. His story is going to told by the man. D. He is told his story by the man. 39. They are going to build a new school here. A. A new school is being built here. B. A new school is going to build here. C. A new school is built here. D. A new school is going to be built here. 40. We will not admit children under sixteen. A. Children won't be admitted under sixteen. B. Children under sixteen won't be admitted. C. Children under sixteen will be admitted. D. Children will be admitted under sixteen. @ Rewrite the sentences so that they have similar meaning to the original one: 41. The man is going to tell his story. His story 42. Mr. Dryden mended the washing machine. The washing .. 43. He is introducing some new kinds of computers. Some new kinds 44. My brother plants more green trees around the house. More green trees 45. The traffic warden will give you a ticket if you park there. You ................................................................................................................................................ V. READING @ Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Every year, UNEP (the Environment Program of the United Nations) develops a theme which is used globally to raise (1) ______ and call for support from governments, organizations, and individuals from all over the world. The theme for 2015 was "Seven Billion Dreams. One Planet. Consume with Care”. This would also serve as the slogan for the World Environmental Day 2015. The meeting of this theme and slogan is that we have five continents with more than seven billion people combined. Although we have about 7 billion people, we just have one planet that we live and survive. The surface area is limited, shelter and food also limited. If we continue using the available natural (2) _______ as we do today, our future generations may be (3) ______ to go hungry and without homes. This is why it is of vital importance to consume (4) ______food that is available with care. Stop the wastage and use whatever resource that is available according to need, not greed. Page | 7 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 “Join the race to make the world a better place” is the theme and slogan for 2016 UN World Environment Day. This slogan carries a clear message and asks everyone to get involved (5) ______ making the world a better place to live in. 1. A. feature B. activity C. ability D. awareness 2. A. sources B. resources C. balances D. increase 3. A. had B. made C. forced D. accused 4. A. which B. whatever C. who D. what 5. A. from B. to C. within D. in @ Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers Living green has a lot of benefits to our life. The most obvious advantage of living green is that it helps reduce environmental pollution. This is done by practicing is 3Rs. The first R means choosing products very carefully to reduce waste as much as possible. Reusing involves the repeated use of items is the second R. The third R is about separating materials that can be recycled and late used for a few purpose. There are also economic benefits to living green. Reducing the use of energy and water can help save money on household bills. Furthermore, reusing products and materials is another way to make savings. It helps save on production costs since creating new products wastes materials and is expensive. Recycled products also last longer than new ones. Making them a better and more eco-friendly option. Lastly, going green offers health benefits. It reduces air pollutants by making the air we breathe cleaner and healthier. This means fewer diseases and doctor’s appointments. Another way to improve your health is to purchase organic foods and green products for your household. They don’t use harmful chemicals that can lead to health issues. In turn, you are also supporting responsible farming methods that protect the environment. 1. What is the main idea of the text? A. The pro of a green lifestyle B. Difficulties of a green lifestyle C. Trends in green living D. The con of a green lifestyle 2. According to the text, which way is NOT for practicing the 3Rs? A. By reducing waste as much possible B. By reusing items C. By making organic foods D. By recycling items 3. Which is the following is given in the text as a benefit of living green? A. community benefit B. environment benefit C. health benefit D. government benefit 4. The word “purchase” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. exchange B. sell C. change D. buy 5. What is the second R according to the reading passage? A. reducing B. resusing C. recycling D. repeating Page | 8 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 UNIT 3 – MUSIC I. PHONETICS @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 1. A. musical B. produce C. judge D. reduce 2. A. latest B. contest C. request D. suggest 3. A. single B. music C. contest D. release 4. A. around B. about C. couple D. compound 5. A. argument B. ordinary C. participant D. star @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 6. A. theatre B. movie C. famous D. attend 7. A. perform B. talent C. receive D. release 8. A. expect B. birthday C. boring D. weather 9. A. musical B. melody C. performance D. improvise 10. A. melody B. festival C. positive D. contestant II. VOCABULARY: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Can you play any ____? - Yes. I can play the flute and the guitar. A. musical tools B. pieces of music C. musical instruments D. musical devices 12. I passionately love the show “Familiar Faces” and this is the 4th ____ I’ve seen. A. show B. chapter C. season D. episode 13. The judges ____ an important role in the competition. A. work B. play C. rest D. put 14. But for your support, our band couldn’t have won the Grand Music ____. A. show B. quiz C. competition D. tour 15. I’m a fan of ____ music. It consists of simple tunes so it is easy to listen and remember. A. pop B. rock C. classical D. jazz 16. In this round, the ____ have to form pairs and choose a song to perform with their partners. A. supporters B. participants C. writers D. audiences 17. Our music teacher has been invited to be a ____ in many music competitions and talent shows. A. singer B. competitor C. contestant D. judge 18. That the young talented pianist won the Pulitzer Prizes has attracted ____ attention. A. worldwide B. scientific C. undue D. careful 19. Judges travel all round America ____ search of the best singers and bring them to Hollywood. A. on B. in C. at D. for 20. The X-factor is a television singing competition ____ in the United Kingdom. A. originate B. originated C. originating D. origination Page | 9 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 III. GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 21. Nobody can make the teen singer __________ anything that her mother doesn’t agree with. A. do B. to do C. doing D. done 22. Tom said that he could ____ me with this assignment. A. helped B. helping C. to help D. help 23. I’d like ____ all of you to enjoy my party on this Friday. A. to invite B. inviting C. invite D. not invite 24. We expect Linh _______ to the airport late as the plane will take off in 15 minutes. NB A. come B. not to come C. not coming D. coming 25. It's customary _________ a gift from at least once or twice before finally accepting in Japan. A. refuse B. to refuse C. refused D. refusing 26. These games are challenging, ____ it’s not easy to spend little time playing them. A. so B. and C. for D. or 27. My family really loves Japanese food, ____ we order it twice a week. A. yet B. so C. but D. nor 28. You can go to the theatre with us _________ you can go there alone. A. or B. but C. and D. for 29. The boys are playing games, ____ the girls are watching TV. A. so B. nor C. and D. yet 30. My hobbies are playing soccer _________ listening to music. A. and B. but C. or D. so IV. WRITING @ Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence: 31. She noticed him to leave the party without saying goodbye. A B C D 32. After a two-hour discussion, we decided to expanding the car market in America. A B C D 33. The doctors looked at the test result, but they decided to operate on the patient. A B C D 34. The teacher doesn’t let her students to use their mobile phones in class. A B C D 35. Dr. Dre said I could come to his office on Monday, so I could come on Tuesday of next week. A B C D @ Choose the sentence which has the similar in meaning to the original one: 36. My mother never allows me to go out alone at night. A. My mother never lets me go out alone at night. B. I am allowed to go out go out alone at night. C. My mother never goes out alone at night. D. My mother and I usually go out alone at night. 37. They built this school in two years. Page | 10 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 A. It takes them two years to build this school. B. It took them two years to build this school. C. It takes them two years building this school. D. It took them two years building this school. 38. I advise you to put your money in the bank. A. I like you putting your money in the bank. B. I hope you'll put your money in the bank. C. You'd feel better if you put your money in the bank D. You'd better put your money in the bank. 39. These students are made to study so much by their parents. A. Their parents make these students to study so much. B. Their parents make these students study so much. C. Their parents made these students study so much. D. Their parents made these students to study so much. 40. He sang very badly. Everyone left the room. A. Everyone left the room so he sang badly. B. He sang very badly so everyone left the room. C. He sang badly as a result of everyone leaving the room. D. He sang so badly but everyone left the room. @ Rewrite the sentences so that they have similar meaning to the original one: 41. My parents ask me to have breakfast at home. My parents make.......................................................................................................................... 42. We like playing football with our close friends at weekends. We want ...................................................................................................................................... 43. Do you enjoy drinking a cup of coffee ?. Would you like 44. Meeting your parents is very nice. It is very ....................................................................................................................................... 45. I had a very good time although I didn’t know many people in the party. I didn’t know many people in the party . V. READING @ Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Sir Elton John, an English pop singer and (1) ____, is known wearing unusual clothes and large colorful glasses. He has been popular (2) ______ the 1970s and his most successful (3) _____ have included: “Your song” (1970), “Rocket man” (1972), “Don't go breaking ray Heart” (1976) and “Sacrifice” (1989). He was a friend of Diana, Princess of Wales, and played and sang a special version of his song “Candle in the Wind|” at her funeral ceremony. This immediately became the most (4)_____ record of all time, with all the profits going to a special charity set up in memory of Princess Diana. Elton John (5) _____ a knight in 1998. 1. A. piano player B. pianoer C. play piano D. piano playing 2. A. in B. since C. at D. from 3. A. record B. albums C. songs D. clips 4. A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully 5. A. made B. make C. is made D. was made Page | 11 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 @ Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers Based on the original The Voice of Holland, The Voice of America, or sooner The Voice, officially aired on NBC on April 26, 2011 aiming to find new singing talent and soon became a big hit. The Voice process includes Blinds Audition, Battles Rounds, Knockout Rounds, and the final live performance phase. Only those fifteen and over are eligible for the competition. There are four coaches, themselves well-known performing artists, who critique contestants' performances and form their own teams of contestants and give them guidance through the rest of the season. Coaches also have the power to decide on which contestants to advance in the next rounds. One celebrity key advisor gives assistance to the coaches and their teams during the preparation process. The coaches and the television audience have equal power to decide who moves on to the final four phase. However, the winner is determined by votes from the television audience by online voting on the official website, SMS text and iTunes stores purchases of the contestants' performances. The declared winner receives US$ 100, 000 and a record contract with Universal Music Group. As an incredible success in both Holland and the U.S., The Voice has been franchised out to many other countries in the world, and has been a big rival to the Idol franchise. 1. What is TRUE about The Voice program? A. It originated in Holland. B. The Voice of Holland first aired on NBC. C. It was a failure in Holland. D. The Voice of Holland first aired on BBC. 2. What is a requirement for contestants? A. Contestants must be over 10 old. B. Contestants must be at least 15 years old. C. Contestants must be at least 13 years old. D. Contestants must be over 30 years old. 3. Who decide on the winner of each season? A. Coaches and television audience B. Coaches and the celebrity key advisor C. Television audience D. The contestants' parents. 4. By what means can people vote for their favourite contestant? A. Text messages, internet, and post letters B. YouTube views and online voting on the official website C. Facebook’s sharing and voting from the audiences. D. Text messages and online buying of the contestants' performances 5. What is the prize for winning a The Voice season? A. A music company and US$ 100,000 B. A large amount of money and becoming a The Voice coach C. A record contract worth US$ 100,000 D. A large amount of money and chance to work with a music company Page | 12 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 UNIT 4 – FOR A BETTER COMMUNITY I. PHONETICS @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 1. A. concerned B. extended C. dedicated D. contributed 2. A. narrow B. valuable C. advantage D. handicapped 3. A. student B. urgent C. community D. monument 4. A. washes B. branches C. chances D. opportunities 5. A. remote B. introduce C. donate D. bowling @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 6. A. introduce B. musical C. meaningful D. president 7. A. volunteer B. engineer C. Vietnamese D. holiday 8. A. advice B. social C. healthy D. useful 9. A. experience B. community C. development D. recognition 10. A. service B. colour C. helpful D. enjoy II. VOCABULARY: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Our charity groups received generous ________ from the local people. A. donation B. volunteer C. benefit D. application 12. I saw the advertisement on the Internet yesterday and quickly ____ for the position. A. got B. had C. looked D. applied 13. My sister really loves working as a doctor as it is a meaning job to ____ a lot of patients’ lives. A. cure B. treat C. save D. help 14. What local and global ____ are there to do for our community development? A. activities B. projects C. benefits D. advantages 15. The group is very happy to know that their contributions are to____ the poor people in the remote area of Cao Bang. A. grateful B. helpful C. careful D. meaningful 16. The children actively ____ in our school volunteer program organized by the school union. A. part B. interest C. participate D. join 17. She wishes she could do some _____ work this summer. A. voluntarily B. volunteerism C. volunteer D. volunteering 18. This charity provides financial support and mental comfort to ____ children. A. advantaged B. disadvantaged C. advantageous D. disadvantageous 19. You can ____ books, clothes, medicine and money to this charity. A. donor B. donate C. devote D. dedicate 20. She has a lot of ____ in this field, so she was offered the job. A. contact B. involvement C. maturity D. experiences Page | 13 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 III. GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 21. What ____ in Paris in 2004? A. did you do B. were you doing C. you did D. were you 22. What ____ when you injured your finger? - I was playing volleyball. A. did you do B. were you C. you did D. were you doing 23. At this time last week, we ____ for the exam. It was so hot in the examination room. A. would have been sitting B. had been sitting C. sat D. were sitting 24. While the teacher was explaining to the whole class, she ____ carefully. A. didn't listen B. wasn't listening C. had listened D. wasn't listened 25. Last Sunday, our volunteer team ____ a lot of food packages to homeless people in the flood- hit region. A. were bringing B. brought C. have brought D. had brought 26. I ____ my report when my boss entered the hall. A. made B. was made C. was making D. were making 27. When we were on a voluntary tour, we ____ to public places to collect rubbish every day. A. were going B. went C. have gone D. had gone 28. I was standing near the fence when suddenly I ____ the voices. A. hear B. was hearing C. heard D. hearing 29. While Lauda ____ round a corner, he suddenly lost control of his Ferrari. A. went B. were going C. was going D. go 30. The girls were chatting ____ the boys were playing games. A. when B. while C. during D. at the same time IV. WRITING @ Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence: 31. We played some games, teaching the disadvantaged children and gave clothes to them. A B C D 32. I was coming home this morning when I was seeing Kate waiting at the bus stop. A B C D 33. When he was calling me, I was doing the cooking for dinner. A B C D 34. He put the letter on the table and then he was getting out to take a taxi. A B C D 35. While we talked, someone in the same room was recording our conversation. A B C D @ Choose the sentence which has the similar in meaning to the original one: 36. The film excited us all a lot. A. The film had a lot excitement. B. We were exciting about all of the film. C. The film made all of us feel a lot of excited. D. All of us were excited about the film. 37. John finds astronomy very interesting. A. John is interested in astronomy. B. Astronomy is one of John's favourite branches of science. C. John reads a lot of books about astronomy. D. Astronomy makes John become more interested in science. Page | 14 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 38. Getting a good job doesn't interest him. A. He isn't good at getting an interesting job. B. He isn't interested in getting a good job. C. He is only interested in getting a good job. D. Even a good job isn't suitable to him. 39. We were having dinner when suddenly the phone rang. A. The telephone rang while we were having dinner. B. The telephone rang where we were having dinner. C. The telephone rang what we were having dinner. D. The telephone rang how we were having dinner. 40. My daughter and I were walking along the street when we noticed a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. A. While my daughter and I were walking along the street, we noticed a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. B. My daughter and I were walking along the street while we were noticing a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. C. My daughter and I walked along the street and noticed a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. D. My daughter and I were walking along the street and noticing a homeless boy sleeping in a cardboard. @ Rewrite the sentences so that they have similar meaning to the original one: 41. The program was interesting. I was . 42. We were excited about the movie. The movie 43. That film made me bored. (boring) He was 44. They are disappointed with your result. Your result is . 45. Kim was delivering free meals to old people when she noticed the poverty of the area. While Kim V. READING @ Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank. Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an isolated village in Chad, about 500 kilometres from the capital N'Djamena. Coming from a (1) ____ country, I got quite a shock, as conditions were much harder than I had expected. But after a few days I got used to (2) ____ there. The people were always very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how beautiful the countryside was. One of my jobs was to supply the village (3) ____ water. The well was a long walk away, and the women used to spend a long time every day carrying heavy pots backwards and forwards. So I contacted the organisation and arranged to have some pipes delivered. (4) ____ these pipes were not really perfect, they still made a great difference to the villagers. All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience. Although it was not paid, it was well worth doing and I would recommend it to anyone (5) ____ was considering working for a charity. 1. A. rich B. comfortable C. well-paid D. luxurious 2. A. lived B. living C. lived D. lively 3. A. for B. on C. with D. from Page | 15 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 4. A. If B. Because C. When D. Although 5. A. which B. when C. where D. who @ Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers People volunteer for a number of different reasons. One of the more obvious reasons why people volunteer is because they find something they are passionate about and want to do something good for others. Many people who volunteer think that they are very fortunate to live the way they do and want to give something back to society, as a way of balancing the scales. Many people choose to volunteer because of the personal benefits that volunteering has on their character. In most cases, volunteers also become more concerned and aware of the problems facing the world and many feel that they were ignorant or narrow-minded before. Volunteer work is a great way to gain experience in a broad range of fields. Volunteering is a great way to put in a little of your time and gain some valuable skills, whether professional or practical. Volunteer work can often lead to a paying job. Volunteers can try out a field to see if it suits them and also show that they are dedicated enough to work for free in the hope that it may lead to a paid job. 1. One of the reasons why people volunteer is that: A. They can earn a lot of money B. B. They have chance to make new friends C. It is a meaningful way for them to do something good for others. D. They feel pride that comes from completing something 2. It can be inferred from the 2 nd paragraph that: A. Volunteers can gain some personal benefits from their work B. Volunteer work can make us a better person C. Volunteers become more narrow-minded than they used to before D. Volunteers have time to interact with new culture, try new food 3. Which of the following is NOT true according to the text? A. English teaching is a good example of a volunteer job that often turns into a career. B. People who join social work will not gain any good skills in reality. C. Volunteer work has some positive impacts on people’s character. D. One of the biggest benefits of volunteering abroad is being able to spend an extended time in a new country 4. The word they in line 3 in the 1st paragraph refers to: A. students B. doctors C. teenagers D. volunteers 5. Which of the following can be inferred from the text? A. The best way to volunteer is to give people money when they need it B. There’s no need to volunteer as a very few people can benefit from volunteer work. C. Volunteer work is a great way to gain valuable life experiences and skills D. Volunteers believe that the happiest people are those who make themselves happy Page | 16 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 UNIT 5 – INVENTIONS I. PHONETICS @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 1. A. benefit B. generous C. inventor D. video 2. A. graduate B. communicate C. laptop D. valuable 3. A. invention B. experiment C. convenient D. document 4. A. costly B. mature C. portable D. smartphone 5. A. generous B. suggest C. designer D. advantage @ Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which is stressed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 6. A. designer B. memory C. telephone D. benefit 7. A. processor B. advantage C. tradition D. afternoon 8. A. invention B. internet C. convenient D. assistant 9. A. battery B. vacuum C. portable D. recommend 10. A. effective B. diagram C. suitable D. chocolate II. VOCABULARY: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 11. Smartphone can be a great learning ________ but you need to think of how to use it effectively. A. benefit B. choice C. invention D. tool 12. Facebook is used____ among the young. A. communicate B. communicating C. to communicate D. to communicating 13. Sophia is a humanoid robot which can communicate ____ people by using human language and expressing emotions. A. to B. for C. with D. on 14. The screen will ____ the username in the top right-hand corner. A. store B. display C. install D. promote 15. You can send and receive e-mails from a____. A. charger B. printer C. smartphone D. USB 16. Dung spilled his coffee on his desk and so now there is a ____ on the desk. A. crack B. wound C. cut D. stain 17. Be careful when using electrical ____ A. equipment B. experiment C. experience D. exception 18. It is convenient for you to read ____ when you travel. A. e-books B. laptops C. online game D. smartphones 19. We can surf the ____ to search for news, watch films, or download music. A. e-book B. internet C. laptop D. smartphone 20. Thomas Edison, Benjamin Franklin, James Watt are among of the greatest________ of all time. A. inventions B. inventiveness C. inventors D. invents III. GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 21. I have never played badminton before. This is the first time I _____ to play. A. try B. tried C. have tried D. am trying Page | 17 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 22. Dave ____ Chinese for six years now. He likes it. A. studies B. studied C. has studied D. will study 23. We have worked here ____ 2002. A. for B. since C. in D. to 24. Her children ____ their homework yet. They arc still working on it. A. hasn’t finished B. hasn’t finishing C. haven’t finished D. haven’t finishing 25. The company ____ a new kind of smartphone. It looks fantastic! A. just introduces B. just introduced C. has just introduced D. will just introduce 26. Thao Nguyen Xanh admitted ____ a mistake because she has fooled her customers. A. make B. to make C. making D. to making 27. The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it’s worth ______ a packed lunch. A. taken B. taking C. to take D. take 28. Did you remember ____ Mr. Green my message? A. be given B. giving C. have given D. to give 29. It's no good ____ him the truth now. A. not to tell B. tell C. telling D. to tell 30. Most of my friends enjoy____ football on television. A. watch B. to watch C. watching D. watched IV. WRITING @ Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence: 31. I am pleased to tell you that your application for the post of salesman have been successful. A B C D 32. Since the Internet was first created in the 1960s, it changed people’s lives a lot. A B C D 33. They participated in social activities at the castle for the past few years A B C D 34. Many teenagers now prefer chatting on the computer to meet face to face. A B C D 35. I expect seeing my long-lost friend Adam in Berlin on this trip. It's been too long. A B C D @ Choose the sentence which has the similar in meaning to the original one: 36. I am very pleased to see you soon. A. I look forward to see you soon. B. I look forward to seeing you soon. C. I am looking forward see you soon D. I am looking forward to see you soon. 37. It took her two hours to do housework yesterday. A. She spent two hours to doing housework yesterday. B. It took her two hours doing housework yesterday. C. She spent two hours doing housework yesterday. D. Do housework yesterday took him two hours. 38. I have not seen Tom for ages. A. It has been a long time since I last saw Tom. B. Tom and I do not look the same age. C. Tom and I are friends for a long time. Page | 18 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 D. I often met Tom ages ago. 39. We started to write to each other two years ago. A. We used to write to each other for two years. B. We used to write to each other since two years. C. We’ve written to each other for two years. D. We’ve written to each other since two years. 40. This is the first time Tom went abroad. A. Tom ever has gone abroad before. B. Tom has ever gone abroad before. C. Tom has never gone abroad before. D. Tom never has gone abroad before. @ Rewrite the sentences so that they have similar meaning to the original one: 41. I have studied this lesson for two hours. It’s two hours since I 42. I have never read such a romantic story before. This is .. 43. Nga enjoys listening to traditional stories. Nga is interested . 44. Peter started playing the piano when he was 6. Peter has . 45. Sarah began working at the sports centre 2 months ago. Sarah has . V. READING @ Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in the blank. MOBILE PHONES When Scotsman Alexander Graham Bell (1) ________ the telephone in 1876, it was a revolution in communication. (2) ________ the first time, people could talk to each other over great distances almost as clearly as if they were in the same room. Nowadays, though, we (3) ________ use Bell’s invention for taking photographs, (4) ________ the Internet or watching video clips rather than talking. Over the last two decades a new (5) ________ of spoken communication has emerged: the mobile phone. 1. A. has been invented B. is invented C. invented D. was invented 2. A. As B. By C. For D. Since 3. A. increase B. increased C. increasing D. increasingly 4. A. accessing B. contacting C. entering D. searching 5. A. aids B. means C. tools D. ways @ Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers THE VANISHING INVENTION In 1998, a Valencian professor made an amazing claim. Professor Antonio Cervilla discovered how to use water as a substitute for petrol. The scientist said that you could drive from Bilbao to Valencia on just half a Page | 19 English group – 2023-2024
- REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM FINAL TEST GLOBAL SUCCESS 10 litre of water. His invention uses a molybdenum compound to break down water into hydrogen and oxygen. Unlike other methods, no electricity is required and the reaction happens at atmospheric temperature. This impressive technology is based on the way plant enzymes break down water. The use of molybdenum is the perfect choice because, although rare, it is cheap and found all around the planet. Since the claims were made, nothing more has been heard about this fabulous technology. There is no explanation for the disappearance anywhere on the internet, apart from a list of similar inventions which have also vanished. An inventor from the Philipines called Daniel Dingel developed a water-fuelled car but was arrested and sentenced to 20 years in prison. If this technology were to become widely available, it would prove disastrous for petrol station owners and would also save the planet from the impending environmental catastrophes being caused by pollution. 1. The word “substitute” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. addition B. alternative C. imitation D. solution 2. Which of the following is NOT true about Cervilla’s invention? A. It happens at atmospheric temperature. B. It imitates something in nature. C. It requires no electricity. D. It uses enzymes to break down water. 3. The word “it” in the passage refers to ____. A. enzyme B. molybdenum C. petrol D. water 4. The word “vanished” in the passage is opposite in meaning to ____. A. appeared B. produced C. introduced D. invented 5. It is stated in the passage that water-fuelled cars may contribute to ____. A. save energy B. save environment C. save money D. save time Page | 20 English group – 2023-2024

